imme
March 29th, 2005, 04:47 AM
I am working on a friend's computer at my house. I have their CPU attached to my peripherals and phone line. Their ISP settings have them dialing from their number (of course) to their local access number and both #s are long distance from my location, but we share the same area code. I set up the dialer to dial from new location "My House" and chose access numbers local to me. The dialer settings only asked for my area code and not my actual phone number. Their phone number is the only one listed in computer system info.
OK, here's the stupid question. When I connect to their ISP (AOL) in this way, is it possible that their phone could be billed for long distance or vice versa? I don't see how it could be, but it knaws at my stem every time I log on.
I asked AOL and then my phone company and didn't get a decisive answer.
Some of the folks here, at Wilder's, are smarter and more experienced with 'puters than your average Cyber-bear so I thought... maybe, someone here could help reduce my obsessive techno-paranoia. Pretty-please?
Thanks in advance,
Crkit1
OK, here's the stupid question. When I connect to their ISP (AOL) in this way, is it possible that their phone could be billed for long distance or vice versa? I don't see how it could be, but it knaws at my stem every time I log on.
I asked AOL and then my phone company and didn't get a decisive answer.
Some of the folks here, at Wilder's, are smarter and more experienced with 'puters than your average Cyber-bear so I thought... maybe, someone here could help reduce my obsessive techno-paranoia. Pretty-please?
Thanks in advance,
Crkit1